Friday, April 29, 2011

Jesus is the Amen: An English Nugget

In Revelation 3:14 the Lord Jesus, speaking to the church of the Laodiceans says: "These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness..."  The word Amen means true or faithful.  Jesus IS the Amen because he IS the truth (John 14:6), and he IS the faithful witness (Rev 1:5, 3:14).

Also notice this verse appears as the opening to the Lord's epistle to the church of the Laodiceans.  This is the church that is "lukewarm."  This is the church that takes the Lord Jesus out of his own church: "Behold, I stand at the door and knock: if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, and will sup with him, and he with me."

It is no irony that it is in this final church age that we see the bible perversions mounting higher than Mount Everest.  And in a touching note, following the heretics Wescott & Hort, the modern perversions produced in the last days of the church have removed the Amen, the Lord Jesus Christ, from the last verse of the book that prophesies of the times of their operation: 2 Timothy 4:22.

KJV: The Lord Jesus Christ be with thy spirit. Grace be with you. Amen.
NIV: The Lord be with your spirit. Grace be with you.
NIV 2011: The Lord be with your spirit. Grace be with you all.
ASV: The Lord be with thy spirit. Grace be with you.
ESV: The Lord be with your spirit. Grace be with you.
HCSB: The Lord be with your spirit. Grace be with you!
NASV: The Lord be with your spirit. Grace be with you.
RSV: The Lord be with your spirit. Grace be with you.
NRSV: The Lord be with your spirit. Grace be with you.
MSG: God be with you. Grace be with you.


Sunday, April 24, 2011

The Power of Easter

As I was up early this morning reading over the resurrection story in the four Gospels, and reflecting on what it has meant in my life personally, and my wife's life as an ex-'religious' Roman Catholic.  And more than anything, I am thankful that God in is infinite wisdom saw fit to give us a Bible so that we could know the truth, simplicity, and manifold power of the Gospel through the holy scriptures (2 Tim 3:15).  Given all that we have written this week concerning the true meaning of Easter, one verse really stood out to me this morning, Mark 16:2:

Mark 16:2 And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulchre at the rising of the sun. 

I am glad the Son arose in my heart and my wife's heart and that the power of His resurrection is still available to the world today in Holy Bible.

Happy Easter!


Saturday, April 23, 2011

Happy Easter!

In this concluding post about Easter, let me be brief and say I hope you have learned something about the Biblical and historical truth concerning the English word Easter, its context and meaning.  And whether you decide to "celebrate" Easter or not is entirely up to given the liberty that we have.

But as for me and my house, tomorrow is Easter and not just resurrection Sunday.  For if Jesus was risen and that's where the story ends, then what of our blessed hope?  What of our return to Earth with Him to reign 1000 years?  What of the promise of new heavens and new earth?  Easter symbolizes all of these things and I am so unworthy to partake in any of it, but I'm glad he allowed me to through his mercy and grace.

Happy Easter!


Friday, April 22, 2011

Easter Q & A

I received a question from one of the brethren regarding the previous post, and it was very good.  So I will post and answer it here.

Question: Why would the original context of that word encompass the rapture/second coming of Christ?

Answer:  I don't have a dogmatic answer for this question, but I believe it centers around the Lord's Supper.  While we all (who celebrate the Lord's Supper properly) know that it is remembrance of the Lord's body and blood given for us at Calvary, I feel, an often missed topic that doesn't get discussed hardly ever, if ever (I have never seen it discussed during a Lord's Supper service in the Baptist churches I have been a member of).

1 Corinthians 11:26  For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come.

Part of the reason for celebrating the Lord's Supper is to show His death until he comes again; the 2nd coming is an integral part of the entire Easter meaning.  This means the death, burial, resurrection, ascension, and rapture/2nd Advent are all interconnected.  Brings a new outlook to the Easter celebration and what should be at each Lord's Supper service where our congregations meet.


Quit Greek, Learn English: Etymology 101

With the modern onslaught started by the Papists to learn the "original languages" in order to get the "full" meaning of scripture (of course this only applies to the New Testament), even so-called "Bible-believers" have embarked on this journey to learn the language that has produced more heresy than all the Pope's combined.  But while spending pointless hours to learn a language that no person on earth currently speaks and hasn't spoken in 1500+ years, they have neglected studying and mastering their native tongue; and in most cases that tongue is English.

With this in mind we come to the English word Easter.  This word, as INVENTED by Tyndale, was originally spelled Ester.  This corresponds perfectly to one of English's root languages: German.  The German equivalent is Ostern.  The 'est' in Tyndale's ester comes from the Germanic 'ost' which guessed it, EAST or as Tyndale spelled it est.  The German word for Easter, Ostern is derived from the Teutonic word auferstehen which means resurrection.  What is the significance of the east (est & ost) and the resurrection?  The Teutonic word that became German then became English was not only associated with the rising of the Lord Jesus Christ from the tomb, but His ascension, and our future resurrection and His second coming.  Clearly Tyndale and Luther knew something about the scriptures and language that Hislop and all those that parrot his myth don't know: there is a significance between east and the son rising and the 2nd coming of The Word Of God.

Malachi 4:1-2  For, behold, the day cometh, that shall burn as an oven; and all the proud, yea, and all that do wickedly, shall be stubble: and the day that cometh shall burn them up, saith the LORD of hosts, that it shall leave them neither root nor branch.  (2)  But unto you that fear my name shall the Sun of righteousness arise with healing in his wings; and ye shall go forth, and grow up as calves of the stall.

Matthew 24:27  For as the lightning cometh out of the east, and shineth even unto the west; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.

2 Peter 1:19  We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts: (and what is this "day star?" Genesis 1:16  And God made two great lights; the greater light to rule the day... And so the circle closes it's reference back at Malachi 4:1-2).

As we look closer to the English word, we should break it down into two parts: East & er.  When we look at English grammar we come to find that the suffix 'er', coming from its Germanic roots, is most commonly used in the formation of nouns designating persons from objects of their occupation or from their place of origin.  It can also serve as the English formative of nouns as it can be attached to verbs of any origin.

This means if the word East is a noun, an er ending would make the word mean one whose origins are from the East.  If the word East is a verb, then adding an er ending would make the word a noun and mean one who is coming from the East.  Doesn't this sound a lot like the few verses we just referenced?  I believe it does.

It also brings us back full circle to the Teutonic word 'auferstehen' and its full meaning encompassing the not just the resurrection from the tomb, but the celebration of the consummation of the full meaning of the Lord's rising from the dead.


Wednesday, April 20, 2011

Pascha, Passover & Easter

As King James Bible believers we know the debate from ‘TR Men’, Pseudo King James Onlites and bible agnostics about the word Easter centers on the underlying Greek word Pascha.  As we stated in a previous post in this Easter series, not only did the word Pascha mean Easter in English before it meant Passover, but Easter (then spelled ester) was used every place in the New Testament that is now rendered Passover.  This lack of study into the true history of the word has led many a ‘good’ Christian to simply parrot the lie that Easter is Ishtar started by Bible corrector Alexander Hislop.

Since the AV1611 is our only authority we only need to heed the spiritual words of this Book (John 6:63) and compare spiritual things with spiritual things (1 Cor. 2:13); that is compare scripture with scripture.  The Greek word in question is translated in 26 verses in the New Testament: 1 verse as Easter and 25 verses as Passover.  Read the following verses and see what you notice about the verses that say Passover as compared to the verse that says Easter.

(Matthew 26:2)  Ye know that after two days is the feast of the passover, and the Son of man is betrayed to be crucified.

(Matthew 26:17)  Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?

(Matthew 26:18)  And he said, Go into the city to such a man, and say unto him, The Master saith, My time is at hand; I will keep the passover at thy house with my disciples.

(Matthew 26:19)  And the disciples did as Jesus had appointed them; and they made ready the passover.

(Mark 14:1)  After two days was the feast of the passover, and of unleavened bread: and the chief priests and the scribes sought how they might take him by craft, and put him to death.

(Mark 14:12)  And the first day of unleavened bread, when they killed the passover, his disciples said unto him, Where wilt thou that we go and prepare that thou mayest eat the passover?

(Mark 14:14)  And wheresoever he shall go in, say ye to the goodman of the house, The Master saith, Where is the guestchamber, where I shall eat the passover with my disciples?

(Mark 14:16)  And his disciples went forth, and came into the city, and found as he had said unto them: and they made ready the passover.

(Luke 2:41)  Now his parents went to Jerusalem every year at the feast of the passover.

(Luke 22:1)  Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover.

(Luke 22:7)  Then came the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed.

(Luke 22:8)  And he sent Peter and John, saying, Go and prepare us the passover, that we may eat.

(Luke 22:11)  And ye shall say unto the goodman of the house, The Master saith unto thee, Where is the guestchamber, where I shall eat the passover with my disciples?

(Luke 22:13)  And they went, and found as he had said unto them: and they made ready the passover.

(Luke 22:15)  And he said unto them, With desire I have desired to eat this passover with you before I suffer:

(John 2:13)  And the Jews' passover was at hand, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem,

(John 2:23)  Now when he was in Jerusalem at the passover, in the feast day, many believed in his name, when they saw the miracles which he did.

(John 6:4)  And the passover, a feast of the Jews, was nigh.

(John 11:55)  And the Jews' passover was nigh at hand: and many went out of the country up to Jerusalem before the passover, to purify themselves.

(John 12:1)  Then Jesus six days before the passover came to Bethany, where Lazarus was which had been dead, whom he raised from the dead.

(John 13:1)  Now before the feast of the passover, when Jesus knew that his hour was come that he should depart out of this world unto the Father, having loved his own which were in the world, he loved them unto the end.

(John 18:28)  Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover.

(John 18:39)  But ye have a custom, that I should release unto you one at the passover: will ye therefore that I release unto you the King of the Jews?

(John 19:14)  And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!

(1 Corinthians 5:7)  Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened. For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us:

(Hebrews 11:28)  Through faith he kept the passover, and the sprinkling of blood, lest he that destroyed the firstborn should touch them.

(Acts 12:4)  And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Notice anything peculiar about the verses?  Ask yourself a question: is the Jewish Passover still a valid feast/celebration?  No.  The Passover feast, as we know, was a shadow or type of the perfect Passover, the Lamb of God, the Lord Jesus Christ.  Obviously, God has closed the Book on the Jew and they are in partial blindness (Rom. 11:25) as of right now to this fact.  However, with THE Passover was fulfilled on the cross by the shed blood of Jesus Christ, this makes the Old Testament Jewish Passover feast of none effect or vain.  Therefore, because it has been fulfilled it should have a new name since technically it doesn't exist anymore, shouldn’t it?

Now look back at the previous verses:  Notice that Acts 12:4 is the only time in the New Testament that the word Pascha is referred to in a post-resurrection context.  This fact would demand that Passover be called something else since it is technically a vain celebration by the Jews; hence the English rendering Easter (ester).


Tuesday, April 19, 2011

What Was Herod Celebrating? Acts 12:4

My dad taught me that when reading the Bible pay attention to what it says; but equally, and in some cases, more importantly, pay attention to what it doesn't say.  This can be a rather tricky statement, but a very wise and common sense one as well.  So let's apply this to the verse that contains the much debated word Easter.  Keep in mind, we have all been taught that Easter is the correct word because Herod was celebrating his pagan/Easter feast.  Let's read this verse carefully.

Acts 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Notice carefully what this verse DOES NOT say: it does not say Herod was celebrating anything.  It simply states that he was going to bring Peter to the Jews after this thing rendered Easter in our English Bible.  Here is a modern day example of this verse: Pretend you were married last Saturday, then left on your honeymoon on Sunday and will return home this coming Saturday.  Let's also pretend you and I are business partners and I have some business to discuss with you.  It could be then said that I am intending after the honeymoon to discuss the business item with you.  Question: does this mean I am celebrating the honeymoon?  Of course not.  All the statement says is that I am waiting until after a particular time to speak to you; this is the same thing Acts 12:4 says.

If we compare scripture with scripture we know that the Jewish religious leaders were married with the Roman government (John 19:15).  We know from the crucifixion that they have a custom to release a prisoner to the Jews (John 18:39).  We also know that the Roman government 'respected' the Jewish celebration of days as witnessed by their listening to the Jews concerning leaving bodies on the cross on the Sabbath in preparation for the Passover (John 19:31).  When we take all of this into consideration, we can ask the question "Would Herod be willing to keep Peter in prison until after the Jews finished their feast during the days of unleavened bread?"  The answer is yes.

So ask yourself: was Herod waiting until after his party, or the Jews party?  Clearly from scripture, the Jews party.


Straight From the Horses Mouth

We've all heard the saying "get it straight from the the horses mouth."  This is always the best method for getting the truth in any matter in which you have a question.  We know this is true because of that telephone game we all played; by the time the line got to the last person in the class it wasn't even close to what was originally said.

This is what we will attempt to do as best we can concerning this Easter bit.  The English word Easter is not of pagan origin and is most certainly not some transliteration of Ishtar.  The English word Easter was invented by William Tyndale.  Yes you read that right: it was INVENTED by William Tyndale.  If you are reading this, I am going to assume you are a King James Bible believer.  And if this is true, than you more than likely know something about him and how God mightily used him in the purification process of the English scriptures.  This is not to say Tyndale was a perfect man, but certainly not a secret occult worshiper like Wescott & Hort.  After exposing Hislop's "logic" in the last post, combined with this information, the "Easter is pagan" myth is on very shaky ground if it hasn't already fallen through a crack big enough to swallow up Korah.

While we cannot dig up Tyndale and ask just what he meant by this Easter, we can look at his work and determine a few things for ourselves.

  • Tyndale translated the New Testament BEFORE he translated the Old Testament.  This is significant because the word 'pascha' was translated as Easter in English before the word Passover ever existed (Passover was also invented by Tyndale).
  • Tyndale rendered the word Easter (spelled then Ester) in all the places the AV1611 NT now says Passover.
These two facts should worry you a bit if you still think Easter is a pagan word and of pagan origin.  If anyone knows the meaning of the word for sure it is Tyndale, right?  After all it is his word and his usage of the word will allow him to 'speak' to us about how he defined the word.  So lets let his usage define the word for us.  Lets look at how he rendered 1 Corinthians 5:7 - For Christ our ester lamb is offered up for us.  The AV says: ...Christ our Passover is sacrificed for us.  If you really believe Easter is a pagan word, you must believe that Tyndale was saying: ...For Christ our Ishtar lamb or For Christ our pagan diety lamb...  You have to admit, that is the silliest thing you've ever heard.

Better yet, what about Hebrews 11:28 from Tyndale - ...Thorow faith he [Moses] ordained the ester lamb...  Did Moses ordain an Ishtar lamb?

It is clear that the man that invented the word Easter knew of no such definition that has been propelled onto, blindly accepted and parroted by the Body of Christ.


Monday, April 18, 2011

Hislop Said What?

A study of the 'Easter is pagan' myth begins with Alexander Hislop and his work The Two Babylons.  Why?  Because in this work, originally released in 1853 and expanded in 1858, is where it is first stated that the word Easter is of Chaldean origin.  Here is the quote from the book:

"Then look at Easter.  What means this term Easter itself?  It is not a Christian name.  It bears its Chaldean origin on its very forehead.  Easter is nothing else than Astarte, one of the titles of Beltis, the queen of heaven, whose name, as pronounced by the people of Nineveh, was evidently identical with that now in common use in this country.  That name, as found by Layard on the Assyrian monuments, is Ishtar."

This all sounds good, but there are a couple of problems with Hislop's study.  He first asks what does the term Easter mean.  According to Webster's 1828 Easter is: A festival of the christian church observed in commemoration of our Savior's resurrection. It answers to the pascha or passover of the Hebrews, and most nations still give it this name, pascha, pask, paque.  Keep in mind, this dictionary was released just a few years before Hislop's book; what did Hislop know that Webster did not, or vice versa?  The second problem with Hislop's opinion on Easter is he never actually says why or provides his proof that Easter is Ishtar.  In the aforementioned quote he only states the similar pronunciation.  Hislop goes on in this section to speak about the addition of Lent and the background of eggs and their addition as well.  But he never says anything about the actual word Easter being pagan in origin except that it is similar to Ishtar.

Hislop concluded that Easter is Ishtar because of a grammatical similarity across languages.  And now today most of professing Christianity will repeat this myth that Easter is pagan based upon Hislop's faulty analysis and reasoning without even knowing it.


Sunday, April 17, 2011

I Celebrate Easter!

Yes.  I said it.  I celebrate Easter; unashamedly at that!

What about you? No?  Why? "Because everyone knows it's pagan."  And certainly this is a very close to the statement I get when asked about or am engaging in a conversation concerning Easter.  This is also what I heard growing up in church as well and like most, I believed what I heard.  And of course it must have been true because "everyone knows" that bunnies and chocolate eggs have nothing to do with the resurrection of the Lord Jesus Christ.

As a King James Bible believer, we know this verse very well as it is one of the first to be pulled out of the hat by cronies of James White et. al. as proof that God's Book is not perfect.  If you have been around these hereticks claims, then you know the standard answer as well, "Herod was celebrating his pagan festival, called Easter, then he was going to deliver Peter to the Jews."  But sometimes we Christians overreact.  Just as we did when evolution exploded onto the scene.  Christians immediately stuck the evolutionary ages in the Genesis 1:1-2 gap unknowingly birthing the heresy of theistic evolution.  Is there a gap between Genesis 1:1-2?  Yes.  Is it billions of years with dinosaurs and men with strangely shaped heads and posture?  No.

I'm afraid the same thing may have happened with the Easter issue.  In an effort to prove the AV1611 perfect by intellectual means (not saying intellectualism is always wrong) a slighting of a historic Christian observance may have taken place.  This is not to say Satanic "celebrations" have not crept into that day or that the timing of Easter is correct due to the switch of the Gregorian calendar.  But it is to say that the word in the English tongue called Easter is Christian at its core.

Stay tuned.


Saturday, April 16, 2011

Sola Ecclesia

It's funny to hear silly papists puke about protestants and Baptists belief in the scriptures alone or Sola Scriptura.  of course they say this because "The Church" is always right and never contradicts itself right?  Ha!  Only in a fantasy land where transubstantiation is actually true and Catholicism is Christian.  I mean, antichrists, uh..I mean popes never dig up their predecessor, put them on trial and condemn as a heretick: do they?  Funny you should ask: they do!


Wednesday, April 6, 2011

Inspiration & God-Breathed: Same Thing?

This is not going to be an in-depth study of the doctrine of inspiration; but just a quick analysis of basic and common sense information about how to use a dictionary.  First of all, let me be transparent: IF inspiration and God-breathed mean the same thing, it is my opinion that 'God-breathed' is a much easier term to grasp and understand mentally.  And IF inspiration and God-breathed mean the same thing, and IF 'God-breathed' is easier to understand, why didn't any other pre-modern version translation ever say 'God-breathed'?  Was Tyndale a fool? The answer is no.  Tyndale was not a fool; those who say the scripture is 'God-breathed' are the fools.

Let's be clear: people who say the scripture is 'God-breathed' mean that God breathed out the very words of scripture.  The key phrase here is 'breathed out' just as it says the Re-Revised RSV A.K.A ESV - "All scripture is breathed out by God..."  The problem with this definition and the translation is it is contradictory to what scripture teaches about the production of scripture AND it adds to just one more contradiction between the Authorized Bible and the non-authorized ones.  Keep in mind, you have been taught or heard that inspiration/God-breathed/breathed out by God all mean the same thing.  Here is the definition (as it relates to breathing) of inspiration: the drawing of air into the lungs; inhalation.

Do you know anyone that believes God inhaled the words of scripture?  If all scripture is breathed out by God the AV1611 should say, "All scripture is given by expiration of God..." because expiration is the act of breathing out or exhaling.

What is interesting, is almost every secular dictionary includes the theological definition of words amongst their list of definitions where applicable.  So what do secular dictionaries say inspiration means in a theological context? From a divine influence directly and immediately exerted upon the mind or soul & the divine quality of the writings or words of a person so influenced.  Notice there is nothing about breathing, breath, wind, or anything relating to the respiratory system.  Are these modern secular dictionaries wrong?  99% of modern Bible 'scholars' can't be wrong, can they?  Yes they can be, and they are.  Compare the theological definition with 2 Peter 1:21 - "...but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost."

Now maybe you're thinking this is just some modern redefining by  Well here is how Noah Webster defined the word in his 1828 dictionary: the infusion of ideas into the mind by the Holy Spirit; the conveying into the minds of men, ideas, notices or monitions by extraordinary or supernatural influence; or the communication of the divine will to the understanding by suggestions or impressions on the mind, which leave no room to doubt the reality of their supernatural origin. All Scripture is given by inspiration of God. 2 Tim.3.

Again, nothing about breathing for breath is present.  But what about earlier translations and how they rendered it?  The old Syriac and Ethiopic scriptures render "given by inspiration of God" as "by the Spirit of God" and "written by the Spirit" respectively.

Now where did and Webster 1828 get this theological definition of inspiration?  Obviously, from the scripture itself; the same place you should get your theological definitions and not from the medical field.

Remember, 2 Peter 1:20 says: " prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation."  "God-breathed" is a private interpretation. 


Monday, April 4, 2011

Spiritual Discernment & The King James Bible

In this 400th anniversary year of the Authorized Version of 1611, almost everyone (even anti-KJV apostates) is getting a good word in for the Book.  Most of these big publishers such as Thomas Nelson and Zondervan are really doing it to make some extra money, but nevertheless they are still attempting to 'honor' it.  But one has to find it interesting that even some atheists have said some surprisingly nice things about the Holy Bible.  I understand these people don't actually believe that it is the word of God, but just a masterpiece of English literature, it is still interesting.  And none more interesting than a recent article featuring Christopher Hitchens appearing in the The Christian Post.  I hope you will take time to read this article if you have not done so already.

What makes this article so interesting is his comparison between the modern perversions and the AV.  Hitchens had the opportunity to read Philippians 4:8 at his father's funeral.  And when compared to the CEV he said the contemporary version was "pancake-flat" and more suited for "a basement meeting of A.A."  Hitchens also said of the modern perversion, "[T]hese words could not hope to penetrate the torpid, resistant fog in the mind of a 16-year-old boy..."

In terms of updating the Holy Bible to make it more relevant Hitchens weighed in and opined, "To seek restlessly to update it or make it 'relevant' is to miss the point, like yearning for a hip-hop Shakespeare."  Quoting Job 5:7 he also states, "'Man is born unto trouble as the sparks fly upward,' says the Book of Job. Want to try to improve that for Twitter?"

Hitchens also weighs in on the stupidity of gender-neutral language in the TNIV and the re-packaged TNIV, the NIV2011.  But Hitchens' discernment of these things has to make you wonder about so-called Christians that cannot discern these same, seemingly obvious points.  I'm willing to give some grace to Christians that have not studied this issue and ignorantly use a perversion because they are just following what their pastor said or they just took the advice of the bookstore salesman.  But you have to wonder about people that have studied the issue and continually fight God's book for the English speaking world; men like James White, John Ankerberg, the professing Christians on these translation committees.  If Hitchens can discern these truths WITHOUT the Spirit,  why can't saved people that have the Spirit abiding in them?  Is the Spirit of God abiding in them?  Or are they part of a conSPIRacy, led by another spirit; blindly or willingly? (Psalm 2)


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